So I have often heard that only women are sexually fluid and men aren't because their strict in their sexuality but I think the reason it appears that way because men are judged more for being bisexual or sexually fluid or even experimenting less than women but I think if we lived in a world that did not care about what men and women did . Men would be just as fluid as women . Anyone agree that if bisexuality and sexual fluidity wasn't seen as with so much stigma when it came to men that both men and women would have the same results ?
It's all societal. In ancient Greece and Rome, it was seen as perfectly normal for two guys to get it on, and therefore it was widespread in society. Societal norms have a HUGE influence over how people behave in all walks of life, including the parameters of ones sexuality.
Basically. Which is why I just roll my eyes every time someone says "sexuality is fluid!!1!" just... no.
Well, back in those times,the men really thought women were useless ugly creatures,& put men on a pedestal. Even plato said the most fulfilling love a man can ever have was with a other man. Let's bring up the fact that they though females were so expendable,useless,& ugly that they often practice female infanticide. It sounded like it was hell being a woman back then. maybe just maybe if society acts right,the gay male community can branch off,& live the way they see fit. Just like in Africa(this is really fucked up though)there's an gay male warrior tribe,&they recruit all males,& even young ones and make them be a gay warrior.
Another thing to consider is some men who were probably gay only got together with women for power and marrying to have heirs to their kingdoms going so For some men it was just a matter of social status but I would think there was a great deal of bisexual men too . You raised a great point here in your post .
Sexuality in it's core is a variable in our genetic code. Regardless of which gender chromosomes you have, it will be fluid. Saying only one gender is fluid is simply a failure to understand the science of growing up. Men and women are literally so closely related genetically that it only takes an X turning to a Y for you to have a penis or vagina. It makes no logical sense for the premise to be true. In essence: Sexual fluidity is something which is apparent in all people, and it is certainly not something that was brought about my societies. I mean, if that were the case there'd be no gay people around today after the dark ages of science deprivation by religion.
I'm not up on the term sexually fluid. What is the exact meaning of this? I do know just as many men as women can be and ARE bisexual. It is more acceptable for women to be bisexual than men. I am more open about being bi than my boyfriend is. However, he is just as bi as I am. I wish bi men were more accepted.
Um... Just a point, the statements made about Rome in particular are not valid but are popular misconceptions. They were only partially, with many many details, true of Greece. I would be fine with elaborating further on that, here or on walls. I study history and it frustrates me to see misconception spread as truth. The resources to learn more are widely available online. Sorry if my post annoys anyone.
Nah, it's not annoying at all. My knowledge on history is practically none existent, so I rely on people who are more well-versed in the subject (aka you) to educate me.
So, this is false then? "Roman men were free to enjoy sex with other males without a perceived loss of masculinity or social status, as long as they took the dominant or penetrative role. Acceptable male partners were slaves, prostitutes, and entertainers, whose lifestyle placed them in the nebulous social realm of infamia, excluded from the normal protections accorded a citizen even if they were technically free. Although Roman men in general seem to have preferred youths between the ages of 12 and 20 as sexual partners, freeborn male minors were strictly off-limits, and professional prostitutes and entertainers might be considerably older."
There is pretty substantial research that sexual attraction and arousal are substantially different for women than for men. The data is primarily focused on hetero men and women, and there is some variability with LGBT populations, but boiled down oversimplistically, women (by and large) tend to be more aroused by touch, tenderness, connection and romance, while men tend to be more aroused by physical activity. There has also been limited study on how these factors play into sexual fluidity, and there appears to be some support for the idea that in the same way arousal patterns are different in men and women, sexual fluidity or lack thereof also appears that it may differ in men and women. I don't know of anything definitive or even close, but it seems possible that there may be some differences in how fluid over time women are vs. men. Anecdotally, fluidity also seems more common among women and men from my (limited) experience, but that isn't a large sample so I'd be hesitant to generalize my own experience.
I have been told it means your sexuality changes over time and I have heard others say it means your a bit bi but I think if your a bit bi your probably bi in the first place . ---------- Post added 14th Aug 2014 at 09:57 AM ---------- From what I have seen it's just as the same there are some men that label themselves straight but sleep and fantasize about sleeping with other men just as the same as women . But they do it in places where it's more private . I'm no expert but I don't believe women are more fluid than men , society even praises women for being sexually fluid or bisexual and men are shamed for it .
Well, sex determination doesn't even really need that. Some species use the lack of a second sex chromosome to determine sex. And apparently transcaucasian mole voles lack a second sex chromosome in both sexes, making it unclear right now how sex is determined in the species. It seems more like what determines sex fiddles with switches on the rest of the genes, and the male/female bit isn't necessarily part of the X or Y. Just that the X and Y determine which switches are flipped during development. Which would suggest very much that you should have a lot of variation within each sex, and even cases where the genes that get expressed don't match up with the "expected" set for that sex. But it also means you can have more subtle differences due to which genes are expressed. Doesn't mean that the premise is true, but it doesn't mean it isn't either. I just think this is really hard to answer without getting gender expectations and roles out of the way, and the repression that brings, which is really hard to do in a study.
Can you tell me who wrote that? It is my understanding that this information is only partially true and only for the lower social orders. Also this seems to be information regarding the practices of the late Roman empire, substantially different in regards to social mores compared to Caesar's Rome or even Marcus Aurelius'.